

I'm with Dan here too, I think you're doing things in reverse of what is
typically seen in most bars. You're not wrong, and the actual $ numbers will
boil down the same, but it's definitely a bit akward for me to think in that
manner. Not that I can claim to be a guru, however I have ran numbers for a
large corporate joint, as well as a few small private bars and they have all
compiled numbers as follows:
Cost Percentage = Cost of Goods / Actual Sales
So, for example, if you purchased your bottle of well vodka for $10, and that
bottle contributed to $100 in sales you would have a 10% cost percentage for
that bottle.
Cost Variance Percentage = Cost Variance ($) / Actual Sales
Let's say you end up having actual costs $550 and Theoretical costs of $500
(what your POS says you should have spent based on what was rung in). This
will give you a variance of $50 (variance being a negative factor) on $10,000
in sales. This would you a Cost Variance percentage of 0.5% (1/2 of a percent
- which is what many corporate joints set as their goal).
I think perhaps many bars compile their numbers in this fashion because
overuse, overpouring, etc is a given, therefore variance means "less" by
default, because it is very rare when you underuse. Also you'd be dealing with
a double negative using your method, which can cause confusion - for example:
We overused -$50 (-.5%) in product
Or the other way:
We overused $50 (.5%) in product
--
Cheers! - Josh @ BarSim
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